Consider the following regression of housing prices on house characteristics:
Price = 119.2 +0.485BDR + 23.4Bath +0.156H Size + 0.090Age – 48.8 Poor (23.9) (2.61) (8.94) (0.011) (0.311) (10.5)
R² = 0.72, SER = 41.5, n =250

Price is the price of the house in thousands of dollars, BDR is the number of bedrooms, Bath is the number of bathrooms, Hsize is the size of the house in square feet, Age is the age of the house in years, and Poor is a variable equal to 1 if the house is in poor condition.

The F-statistic for omitting age and poor from the regression is F = 3.85. Are the coefficients on age and poor jointly statistically different from zero at the 5% level? What about at the 1% level?