A 43-year-old man comes to the office due to fatigue and worsening pedal edema over the past several weeks. The patient was diagnosed with advanced HIV infection and started on antiretroviral therapy 3 months ago. He also has a history of hypertension. Physical examination shows bilateral lower extremity pitting edema. Serum creatinine is elevated and serum phosphorus is decreased compared to test results 3 months ago. Urinalysis reveals moderate proteinuria and glucosuria. Renal biopsy shows cytoplasmic vacuolization in the proximal tubules accompanied by loss of brush border and basement membrane denudation. Intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions are also seen in the proximal tubules. There are no significant interstitial inflammatory infiltrates, and the glomeruli appear normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) HIV associated nephropathy
B) hypertensive nephrosclerosis
C) post infectious glomerunephritis
D) tenofovir induced nephrotoxicity
E) TMP-SMX induced nephrotoxicity