A 38-year-old presents with symptoms and signs of acute appendicitis and undergoes laparoscopic appendectomy. At surgery the terminal ileum and cecum appear to be red and inflamed. The appendix is
removed uneventfully. Final pathology of the appendix demonstrates no evidence of acute appendicitis. Two weeks later, he presents back to the ED with feces draining from his right lower quadrant wound. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for why the drainage may not spontaneously stop?
(A) A distal colonic obstruction
(B) Chronic inflammation
(C) An occult intra-abdominal abscess
(D) A retained sponge in the abdomen
(E) A missed malignancy