An 18-year-old woman presents to your office with redness and pain in her left axilla. She has a history of obesity. Physical exam reveals a solitary nodule, approximately 2 cm in size, with surrounding inflammation and erythema. She tells you that she has had similar “boils” in the past and that her mother had the same skin condition, which required surgery approximately 10 years after diagnosis. Her vital signs today are BP of 131/87 mm Hg, HR of 91 bpm, RR of 16/min, and BMI of 36.3 kg/m2. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy?