shayl994 shayl994 09-04-2024 Mathematics contestada Suppose a Cauchy sequence {x } [infinity] =1 is such that for every ∈ ℕ, there exists a ≥ and an ≥ such that x < 0 and x > 0. Using simply the definition of a Cauchy sequence and of a convergent sequence, show that the sequence converges to 0