Respuesta :
Answer:
[tex]\dfrac{1}{3,357,900}[/tex]
Step-by-step explanation:
There are
[tex]C^{42}_4=\dfrac{42!}{4!(42-4)!}=\dfrac{42!}{4!\cdot 38!}=\dfrac{38!\cdot 39\cdot 40\cdot 41\cdot 42}{2\cdot 3\cdot 4\cdot 38!}=39\cdot 10\cdot 41\cdot 7=111,930[/tex]
different ways to select the four numbers between 1 and 42. Only one of this ways is correct (successful to win).
There are 30 different ways select the single number between 1 and 30. Only one of them is correct.
The probability of winning the jackpot is
[tex]\dfrac{1}{111,930}\cdot \dfrac{1}{30}=\dfrac{1}{3,357,900}[/tex]
p(win jackpot) = [tex]\frac{1}{3357900}[/tex]
This question will be solved using the concept of probability, permutation and combination.
The number of ways to select four numbers between 1 and 42 will be by combination formula which is;
n[tex]C_{r}[/tex] = n!/(r!(n - r)!)
Thus, applying this to the question gives;
42[tex]C_{4}[/tex] = 42!/(4!(42 - 4)!)
This gives us 111930 ways
Now, we are told that you must also select the correct single number between 1 and 30. This means that the probability of winning the jackpot will be;
p(win jackpot) = [tex]\frac{1}{30}[/tex] × [tex]\frac{1}{111930}[/tex]
p(win jackpot) = [tex]\frac{1}{3357900}[/tex]
Read more at; brainly.com/question/17999498