Why does it not make sense to graph f and f−1 on the same set of axes?

Here you have two graphs, one -- graph of the function y=f(x) on the coordinate plane with axes x and y, another -- graph of the function [tex]x=f^{-1}(y)[/tex] on the coordinate plane with axes y and x.
Actually, these graphs are graphs of the same function, only axes are changed.
It makes the sense to graph to functions [tex]f(x)[/tex] and [tex]f^{-1}(x)[/tex] on the same set of axes, not graphs of the same function [tex]y=f(x)[/tex] and [tex]x=f^{-1}(y)[/tex] on the different set of axes.