Which of the following explains why f(x) = log4x does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply.



1. There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.


2. There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.


3. Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.


4. Its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.
NEED ANSWER ASAP!!!!!

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Answer:

The correct options are 1 and 3.

Step-by-step explanation:

The given function is

[tex]f(x)=log_4x[/tex]

It can be written as

[tex]y=log_4x[/tex]

[tex]4^y=x[/tex]             .... (1)           [tex][\because y=log_ax\Rightarrow a^y=x][/tex]

At y-intercept, the value of x is 0.

[tex]4^y=0[/tex]

For any value of y, this statement is not true. It means there is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

Option 1 is correct.

Interchange x and y in equation 1 to find the inverse of the function.

[tex]4^x=y[/tex]

This function does not have any x-intercepts. because for any value of x, the value of y can not be 0.

Since the inverse function have not x-intercept, therefore the function have no y-intercept.

Option 3 is correct.

Answer:

There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.

Step-by-step explanation: