Answer:
No.
Explanation:
In order to minimizing the cost for a given level of output, the firm should equate the weighted marginal product of capital with the weighted marginal product of labor.
[tex]\frac{MP_{K} }{r}= \frac{MP_{L} }{w}[/tex]
Put the value in the above equation, we get
[tex]\frac{316}{1,000}= \frac{39}{200}[/tex]
0.316 > 0.195
Now, [tex]\frac{MP_{K} }{r}>\frac{MP_{L} }{w}[/tex], so the firm is not minimizing its cost in producing the bottles of the soft drink Sludge.
Hence, in order to minimize cost the firm should substitute labor with more of capital, so that MP 'K' falls and become equal to MP 'L'.