Infinitely many solutions
In this exercise, we need to solve the following equation for x:
[tex]\frac{1}{4}(16x-1)=4x-\frac{1}{4}[/tex]
Let's solve this step by step:
[tex]\frac{1}{4}(16x-1)=4x-\fr4x-\frac{1}{4} \\ \\ \\ Distributive \ Property: \\ \\ \frac{16}{4}x-\frac{1}{4}=4x-\frac{1}{4} \\ \\ \\ Simplifying: \\ \\ 4x-\frac{1}{4}=4x-\frac{1}{4} \\ \\ \\ Combine \ like \ terms: \\ \\ 4x-4x=\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{4} \\ \\ 0=0[/tex]
What does it mean we get this result [tex]0=0[/tex]? It means we have infinitely many solutions. This is true because:
[tex]\frac{1}{4}(16x-1) \ and \ 4x-\frac{1}{4}[/tex]
are the equations of the same line.
x and y intercept of lines: https://brainly.com/question/13770925#
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