Respuesta :
Answer:
The answer is 2/3 and I will show the working to prove that in the explanation
Step-by-step explanation:
[tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex] ÷ [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex]
[tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex]×[tex]\frac{4}{1}[/tex]
Answer =[tex]\frac{1}{6}[/tex]×[tex]\frac{4}{1}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{2}{3}[/tex]
- So basically what is happening in the above steps what I have shown is that first I am changing the division sign into multiplication and then I am reciprocating the fraction of 1/4 into 4/1 because on the other side of it is multiplying and after doing that I am simplifying the fraction 4/6 by dividing it by 2 and hence I got a fraction of 2/3 as the answer
