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An otherwise healthy 38-year-old man reports six days of a painful boil on his upper back. Vital signs are BP 128/82, HR 70, RR 16, T 98.6 F. He has been applying warm compresses to the area, but it is increasing in size, and the pain is worsening. On exam, you palpate a 1 x 1 cm erythematous, tender, fluctuant abscess without induration or surrounding cellulitis. What is the most appropriate treatment for your patients abscess?

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olucheyi

Answer: Abscess incision and drainage

Explanation: Abscesses are mostly caused by bacterias, most commonly the Staphylococcus aureus, especially the community acquired methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Without adequate evacuation of the pus, the infection will continue to accumulate, leading to further circulation and systemic infection.

However, In cases were there is lack of response to incision and drainage alone, antibiotics are usually recommended.

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