Answer:
The answer is no. The judge would rule the same.
Explanation:
Because the harasser can be anyone with the inappropriate behavior. And the victm of sexual harassment does not necessarily have to be the person directly being harassed, the victim could be an employee who is indirectly but negatively affected by the offensive conduct.
So in this case, if Paul was the one making unwelcome sexual advances, or requesting sexual favors, and other verbal sexual conduct hostile to the work environment, or even a customer, the judge would agree with the claimer, meaning, the judge would rule the same.