Diego said that the awnser to the question "How many groups of 5/6 are in 1?" Is 6/5 or 1 1/5.Do you agree with his statement? Explain or show your reasoning.

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Answer:

Diego is correct.

He has correctly divided 1 in groups of [tex]\frac{5}{6}[/tex].

Step-by-step explanation:

The question 'How many groups of 5/6 are in 1?'  means that we need to divided 1 into groups of [tex]\\frac{5}{6}[/tex].

When we form groups from a given total, we divided the total by the size of the group.

If we are dividing [tex]N[/tex] number of people in groups of [tex]x[/tex] number of people, then the expression to find the number of groups formed can be given as:

⇒ [tex]\frac{N}{x}[/tex]

For this question the data given is:

[tex]N=1[/tex]

[tex]x=\frac{5}{6}[/tex]

So, the number of groups formed can be given as:

⇒ [tex]\frac{1}{\frac{5}{6}}[/tex]

When divisor is a fraction, then we multiply the reciprocal of the divisor with the dividend.

⇒ [tex]1\times\frac{6}{5}[/tex]

⇒ [tex]\frac{6}{5}[/tex]

In order to convert fraction to mixed number we will divide numerator with denominator and then write the quotient as whole number, remainder as numerator and the denominator remains as it is.

On dividing 6 by 5, the quotient =1 and remainder =1. Thus the mized number is:

⇒ [tex]1\frac{1}{5}[/tex]

Thus, there are [tex]\frac{6}{5}[/tex] or [tex]1\frac{1}{5}[/tex] groups in 1. This matches with Diego's answer and hence he is correct.

The statement made by Diego is correct.

In order to determine the number of groups of 5/6 that are in 1, 1 would be divided by 5/6.

1 ÷ 5/6

= 1 x 6/5 = 6/5

6/5 is called an improper fraction because the numerator is greater than the denominator.

6/5 can also be rewritten as a mixed fraction. If it is rewritten as a mixed fraction, it becomes 1 1/5.

To learn more about mixed fractions, please check: https://brainly.com/question/17767863