The solution to the inequality is x > 2.
Step-by-step explanation:
According to given statement;
The inequality is;
[tex]\frac{5}{6}x-\frac{1}{3}>1\frac{1}{3}[/tex]
Solving the inequality;
[tex]\frac{5}{6}x-\frac{1}{3}>\frac{4}{3}[/tex]
Adding 1/3 on both sides
[tex]\frac{5}{6}x-\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{3}>\frac{4}{3}+\frac{1}{3}\\\\\frac{5}{6}x>\frac{4+1}{3}\\\\\frac{5}{6}x>\frac{5}{3}[/tex]
Multiplying both sides by [tex]\frac{6}{5}[/tex]
[tex]\frac{6}{5}*\frac{5}{6}x>\frac{5}{3}*\frac{6}{5}\\x>2[/tex]
Therefore;
The solution to the inequality is x > 2.
