friar laurence, despite being an official for the roman catholic church, speaks in philosophical terms and avoids referencing the bible. what is the most likely explanation of why? a) religious matters were not to be discussed in plays during the elizabethan age. b) like most layman of the age, shakespeare most likely had little-to-no knowledge of the bible. c) friars were known for avoiding direct references to biblical events for fear of misinterpreting them. d) church services were conducted exclusively in latin and shakespeare had a limited education.

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Some8rRosiadomglor Some8rRosiadomglor

08-07-2016
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friar laurence, despite being an official for the roman catholic church, speaks in philosophical terms and avoids referencing the bible. what is the most likely explanation of why? a) religious matters were not to be discussed in plays during the elizabethan age. b) like most layman of the age, shakespeare most likely had little-to-no knowledge of the bible. c) friars were known for avoiding direct references to biblical events for fear of misinterpreting them. d) church services were conducted exclusively in latin and shakespeare had a limited education.

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antonsandiego antonsandiego · Answer 1 · 2016-07-16T20:34:51+02:00

References to the Bible were not so necessary to the story. The Friar in the story plays more of accomplice than a holy man, though there are inferences that his help denoted that God was on their side. yet he performed spme acts of deceit that were not aligned with the church and references to bibe could create a conflict, so i think that the right answer is A) religious matters were not to be discussed in plays during the elizabethan age