Answer:
No!
Explanation:
The function [tex]f(x)[/tex] doesn't have inverse because it doesn't pass the horizontal line test. This test tells us that a function [tex]f[/tex] has an inverse function if and only if there is no any horizontal line that intersects the graph of [tex]f[/tex] at more than one point. As you can see, from the graph of f (the red one), if you draw an horizontal line that passes through [tex]y=4[/tex] then this line will touch the graph of f at three points, so the horizontal line test is not satisfied here. If you see the graph of g, this doesn't represent a function because there is at least one vertical line that touches the graph at more than one point, so this relation is not a function.
