Respuesta :
Answer
f(x) has 1 x intercept at x=0 because there is an x value that exists when y=0. For g(x), by adding 2 to [tex]x^{2}[/tex] it moves the parent function up 2 so there is now no x-intercept.
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
f(x) has 1 x intercept at x=0 because there is an x value that exists when y=0. For g(x), by adding 2 to x^2 it moves the parent function up 2 so there is now no x-intercept.