Answer:
Check the explanation
Step-by-step explanation:
a)
the formula is given by,
c.v.=[tex]\frac{\sigma}{\mu}\times 100[/tex]
where is standard deviation and is mean of the given data.
b)for asse A,
c.v.= [tex]\frac{\sigma}{\mu}\times 100[/tex] = 0.03 5 , 100 0,30 x 0.30 = 10%
for asse B,
c.v.= [tex]\frac{\sigma}{\mu}\times 100[/tex] = 1.50 x 100 26005 × 100 =8.27 %
for asset C,
c.v.= [tex]\frac{\sigma}{\mu}\times 100[/tex] = 18.70 × 100 =10.71%
c)since, c.v. of asset B is least, it is least volatile and c.v. of asset is most, it is most volatile.