Respuesta :

rhishi2007

Answer:

-2^(x-2)

Step-by-step explanation:

Using differential calculus:

We know that the integral of 1/x = ln(x)

or 2x/ln(2) = log2(x), so we plug in our knowledge and chain rule to figure out that the answer to the inverse is -2^(x-2) :)

Otras preguntas