Respuesta :
Answer:
a. What is the market value of the firm?
- $162,500
b. Now assume the firm issues $50,000 of debt paying interest of 6% per year, using the proceeds to retire equity. The debt is expected to be permanent. What will happen to the total value of the firm (debt plus equity)?
- $200,123
c. Recompute your answer to (b) under the following assumptions: The debt issue raises the probability of bankruptcy. The firm has a 30% chance of going bankrupt after 3 years. If it does go bankrupt, it will incur bankruptcy costs of $200,000. The discount rate is 10%. Should the firm issue the debt?
- The firm should not issue the debt because the risk of bankruptcy eliminates any possible gains obtained from issuing debt. It actually decreases the value of equity.
Explanation:
the firm's current value = [EBIT x (1 - tax rate)] / WACC = [$25,000 x 0.65] / 10% = $162,500
firm's new WACC = ($112,500/$162,500 x 10%) + ($50,000/$162,500 x 6% x 0.65) = 6.92% + 1.2% = 8.12%
the firm's new value = [$25,000 x 0.65] / 8.12% = $200,123
expected cost of bankruptcy = (30% x $200,000) / 1.1³ = $45,079
firm's total value is still $200,123, but the stockholders' equity has been reduced from ($200,123 - $50,000 = $150,123) to $150,123 - $45,079 = $105,044
the gain from issuing debt will be eliminated due to the risk of bankruptcy, before equity had risen from $112,500 to $150,123, but now it decreases to $105,044.
The market value of the firm will be $162500.
Based on the information given, the market value will be calculated thus:
= [EBIT × (1 - Tax rate(] / WACC
= [25000 × (1 - 0.35)] / 10%
= [25000 × 0.65] / 0.10 = $162500
Since the firm's new WACC is 8.12%, then the new value of the firm will be:
= (25000 × 0.65) / 8.12%
= 200,123
Therefore, the total value of the firm is $200,123.
In conclusion, the firm should not issue the debt due to the fact that the risk of bankruptcy will eliminate the gains gotten from the issuance.
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