Answer:
No, not necessarily
Step-by-step explanation:
If g(a) = 0, it is not necessarily that F(x) will have a vertical asymptote at x = a
For instance, assume the following conditions:
[tex]F(x) = \frac{f(x)}{g(x)}\\f(x) = x^3*(x-a)\\g(x) = x-a[/tex]
In this conditions, g(a) = 0. F(a), however, can be written as:
[tex]F(x) = \frac{x^3*(x-a)}{x-a}\\F(a) = a^3[/tex]
In this particular case, F(x = a) does not show a vertical asymptote.
