Can someone tell me if I got the answer right? For the first one I got 2 and for the second one I got -1.

Answer:
see explanation
Step-by-step explanation:
f(g(2)) = f(0) = -2
g(f(1)) = g(0) = 0
Answer:
The correct answers for both of them is -2 and 0.
Step-by-step explanation:
I)
[tex](f\circ g)(2)=f(g(2))[/tex]
From the red graph, we can see that g(2) is 0.
Therefore, f(g(2)) is equal to f(0).
And from the blue graph, we can see that f(0) is -2.
Therefore:
[tex](f\circ g)(2)=-2[/tex]
II)
[tex](g\circ f)(1)=g(f(1))[/tex]
From the blue graph, we can see that f(1) is 0.
Therefore, g(f(1)) is equal to g(0).
And from the red graph, g(0) is 0.
Therefore:
[tex](g\circ f)(1)=0[/tex]
So, you got one correct. Nicely done!