savyhawk11
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I KEEP ASKING THE SAME QUESTION AND I AM RUNNING OUT OF POINTS PLS HELP ILL GIVE BRAINLIEST!!!!
Tom performs a dilation of ⅓ on a triangle. He then classifies the image and pre-image as being congruent. Is Tom correct? Why or why not?

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billgkgk

Answer: Tom is incorrect.

Step-by-step explanation: Congruent is defined as having exactly the same angle measurements and exactly the same side lengths.

In the 1/3 dilation, the angles will remain the same, but all the sides will be shorter, 1/3 the lengths of the original image. The image and pre-image are not congruent. They are similar.

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