The correct answer to this open question is the following.
Jefferson used the word barbarous alongside the word civilized because Thomas Jefferson wanted to make a dramatic comparison of the decisions and behavior of King George of England and how he was a heartless tyrant that was obsessed with absolute power and control and made barbaric decisions (extreme and unconscious terrible decisions that affected the colonies) as if he still lived in the dark ages of the Medival times. That is why Thomas Jefferson immediately used the word civilized, to make a great impact with the two extreme meanings of each word.
