Respuesta :

Answer:

12

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]12[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

1) Simplify 4² to 16.

[tex] \frac{ - \frac{1}{3} \times - 33 - \frac{1}{2} \times 16 }{ \frac{1}{4} } [/tex]

2) Move the negative sing to the left side.

[tex] \frac{ - ( - \frac{33}{3}) - \frac{1}{2} \times 16 }{ \frac{1}{4} } [/tex]

3) Simplify 33/3 to 11.

[tex] \frac{ - ( - 11) - \frac{1}{2} \times 16 }{ \frac{1}{4} } [/tex]

4) Simplify 1/2 × 16 to 16/2.

[tex] \frac{ - ( - 11) - \frac{16}{2} }{ \frac{1}{4} } [/tex]

5) Simplify 16/2 to 8.

[tex] \frac{ - ( - 11) - 8}{ \frac{1}{4} } [/tex]

6) Remove parentheses.

[tex] \frac{11 - 8}{ \frac{1}{4} } [/tex]

7) Simplify 11 - 3 to 8.

[tex] \frac{3}{ \frac{1}{4} } [/tex]

8) Invert and multiply.

[tex]3 \times 4[/tex]

9) Simplify.

[tex]12[/tex]

Therefor, the answer is 12.