Hii! So I answered a question just like this HOWEVER it was with the dice analogy but it is the same concept and the same answer.
Now I believe that word “expensive” was used to confuse you but simply put, the probability of getting “the most expensive car” is 1/6. It is 1/6 because there is nothing that heightens its chances of being picked over the other cars, hence the probability of any car will be equal to that of the “most expensive car”.
And for a percentage:
(1/6) x (100) = 16.67%
(I included a picture of the solution I did for the question I answered previously)
I hope this helps!
If you do not understand, feel free to let me know so I can explain it better.
:)
