Respuesta :

lynpr5

Answer:

its  is incorrect.

Step-by-step explanation:

Each time you roll the dice, you have a 1 in 6 shot in getting any number. Rolling a 6 does not lower the odds of rolling another 6. Therefore the odds of both of these are (1/6)^4.

This does however change if you are allowed to roll these numbers in any order. In that case, the first batch would be easier.

mark brainliest !!

Answer:

No

Step-by-step explanation:

Every time you roll the dice, there is the same probability of rolling any number (1/6)

Simply compute (1/6)^4, which can also be written as (1/6)*(1/6)*(1/6)*(1/6)

this equals 1/1296.

The probability of rolling any given number is the same, so the probability of rolling any sequence of four numbers is the same.