This shows that both functions have the same y-intercept
Given the following functions as shown:
f(x) = -x^2 + 2x + 1
g(x) = 2^x
The y-intercept occurs at x = 0
For f(x) = -x^2 + 2x + 1
f(0) = -0^2 + 2(0) + 1
f(0) = 1
For the g(x), the y intercept is caculated as:
g(0) = 2^0
g(0) = 1
This shows that both functions have the same y-intercept
Learn more on intercept here: https://brainly.com/question/1884491