Respuesta :
According to Kant's "universal principle of right" - Any action is right if it can coexist with everyone's freedom in accordance with a universal law, or if on its maxim the freedom of each can coexist with everyone's freedom in accordance with a universal law.
The universalizability principle, which states that one should "act solely in accordance with that maxim by which you may at the same time wish that it become a universal law.," is one of Kant's categorical imperatives. This means that if you can accomplish something, then everyone else should be able to do it as well.
In terms of political philosophy, Kant does not use the transcendental definition of freedom that is typically connected to the issue of the free will in the face of natural law determinism, a problem that is addressed in the Third Antinomy of the Critique of Pure Reason.
Instead, freedom in political philosophy is defined as "independent from being bound by another's decision," as in the argument about the single inherent right made above.
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