Respuesta :
the probability of y1 being less than 1 is 1, regardless of the actual value of y1. P(y1 < 1) = 1
Since y1 and y2 are both uniformly distributed on the interval (0,1), this means that all possible values of y1 and y2 are equally likely. Therefore, the probability of y1 being less than 1 is 1, since any value of y1 between 0 and 1 has the same probability of occurring. This means that the probability of y1 being less than 1 is 1.
Since y1 and y2 are both uniformly distributed on the interval (0,1), this means that all possible values of y1 and y2 between 0 and 1 are equally likely to occur. This means that the probability of y1 being less than 1 is the same as the probability of y1 being equal to any value between 0 and 1. Since this probability is the same for all possible values of y1, the probability of y1 being less than 1 is 1, regardless of the actual value of y1. This is because any value of y1 between 0 and 1 has the same probability of occurring, meaning that the probability of y1 being less than 1 is 1.
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