Answer:
The given statement is False.
Step-by-step explanation:
We have been given the function [tex]f(x)=(\frac{1}{2})^x[/tex] and the domain of this function is all real numbers greater than 1.
We know that the domain is the set of x values for which the function is defined.
We can see that for any real values of x, the function is defined. Therefore, the domain of the given function is the set of all real numbers.
Therefore, the given statement is False.
