Respuesta :
Answer:
I would conclude that indeed, in 1846, the United States was and is justified in going to war with Mexico. The explanation for this is that Mexico began the war in 1884 when they invaded the army led by General Zachary Taylor, who was ordered by the United States to protect the Rio Grande territory that the United States of America actually claimed. But, as a result, it was owned by the Texas-Mexico treaty when Texas first became independent. The United States of America, once part of Texas, sought to be friendly and to negotiate the contested territories. This was accomplished by the United States of America by sending John Slidell to Mexico City, which at the time was empowered to provide Mexico with large sums of money for the disputed territory. If the United States of America had seriously triggered the war and had taken advantage of the fuzziness that was going on with the relevant treaties, then the people would have been better off under America's rule in the relevant areas, including Texas and Alta California, than if they were under Mexico 's control. And the reason for this is that when all of this was going on, Mexico was corrupt and confused at the time because of the constantly changing hands of the Presidency and also because of the abandonment of democratic values along the way. And, in some cases, but very few, there were settlers who had asked to be part of the United States of America who were originally American! Now, any superior land right to govern that piece of land was the only basis Mexico could claim was that they had to conquer that piece of land first. Now, Mexico's Spanish aristocracy did not even have a "original village settler" to claim the land. The explanation for this is that by occupying and displacing the Indian and Mesoamerican residents, Mexico had already gained them.
