Answer:
Solution given:
[tex]2\frac{4}{5}.3\frac{1}{8}[/tex]
=2*3*[tex]\frac{4*1}{5*8}[/tex]
=6[tex]\frac{4}{40}[/tex]
proved
But I don't think its a. right question.
for more detail look below but answer is above
Solution given:
L.H.S
[tex]2\frac{4}{5}.3\frac{1}{8}[/tex]
converting mixed fraction to normal fraction
[tex]\frac{2*5+4}{5}.\frac{3*8+1}{8}[/tex]
[tex]\frac{14}{5}.\frac{25}{8}[/tex]
over here dot[.] means multiply
now
=[tex]\frac{14*25}{5*8}=\frac{350}{40}[/tex]
while
dividing 350 by 40,we get
Quotient=8
remainder=30
In mixed fraction=8[tex]\frac{30}{40}=8\frac{3}{4}[/tex]
